Why divide by n−1?

MediumStatistics~4m

The sample variance divides by n1n-1 rather than nn. Why?

Show hints (2)+
  1. The sample mean is fit to the same data.
  2. That costs one degree of freedom.

Answer

This is an open-ended question — work through it and compare your reasoning.

Want the full step-by-step worked solution? It's part of Premium — along with a worked solution for every question in the bank.

Asked at: Citadel, SIG

Related questions