Why divide by n−1?
The sample variance divides by rather than . Why?
Show hints (2)+
- The sample mean is fit to the same data.
- That costs one degree of freedom.
Answer
This is an open-ended question - work through it and compare your reasoning.
Want the full step-by-step worked solution? It's part of Premium - along with a worked solution for every question in the bank.
Asked at: Multi-Strategy Quant, EV & Betting Games